WHAT HAVE STARBUCKS DONE WRONG?
WHAT HAVE
STARBUCKS DONE WRONG?
Tax
avoidance is in the news again. What puzzles
me is that tax avoidance in the eyes of the public seems to be simply a
perception. X is not paying as much tax
as we would like him to. Ergo, he is
avoiding tax. But that cannot be right.
Take
Starbucks, for example. Why do people
perceive that it is avoiding tax? The
answer is because it pays no tax in the UK.
But there could be lots of reasons to explain that. Starbucks say that they are not making
profits in the UK. If by that they mean
taxable profits, I can believe that. It
is a retail business. Such businesses
spend a lot of money on fitting out their shops and in many cases regularly
refitting them to refresh their impact.
These costs attract tax relief in the form of capital allowances. Starbucks is as much entitled to that relief
as the corner shop at the end of the street.
It is still expanding in the UK.
With an expanding business, the capital allowances on new shops are
available to set against the taxable profits on existing ones.
Some
months ago, Costa Coffee complained that because it pays no tax, Starbucks outbids
Costa for good sites. It seems to be
more likely that because it is competing with Costa and others for sites, Starbucks
has to pay top dollar to get the sites it wants. That might well mean that because it is
overpaying for sites, it does not make a profit.
Would
anyone pay so much in rent that it cannot make a profit? Isn’t business all about profits? Yes of course it is, but with a global
business there may well be reasons why it does not need to make a profit or
even to try to make one. The Evening
Standard engages people to stand outside railway stations and give away copies
of the publication. It clearly does not
make a profit by printing the paper and paying people to give it away. It makes a loss. Why should it do that? I don’t know.
It may be that giving it away attracts advertising; it may be that it
drives readers to the Independent; it may be that the proprietor simply wants a
mouthpiece to propagate his views. But
no-one is saying that because retailing the paper creates a loss, Mr Lebedev is
somehow avoiding tax.
What
is the business of Starbucks? Obviously
selling coffee? I don’t know. If I make a cup of coffee at home, it costs
me virtually nothing, perhaps a few pence, if that. If I go to a local cafe I will pay between 90p
and £1.50 for a cup of coffee. So why
should I instead pay Starbucks £3?
Perhaps it is because it is not selling coffee; it is selling something
else such as relaxation, a meeting place, somewhere quiet to do ones homework
or even run ones business, and the price of the coffee is the entry fee to
obtain that product. When I go to
Chicago every year, I often visit Oak Park, which is one of the suburbs. It is hard to get a seat in Oak Park
Starbucks. It is full of youngsters with
laptops who seem to stay there for long periods nursing their cup of coffee,
which has undoubtedly long gone cold. I
can understand why it might well not make a profit; it has become a study
venue. People studying do not drink
coffee with the same rapidity as those who simply want to be refreshed. Starbucks are not looking for the rapid
turnover that, say, Macdonalds want.
They are content for customers to sit and relax, so their business model
may not rely on selling lots of coffee.
They might for example believe that if there is a Starbucks everywhere
that people are likely to congregate, customers will choose Starbucks over its
competitors and that the resultant volume of traffic will compensate for slow
turnover. It is rare to see an empty
Starbucks!
And
what is profit from Starbucks UK operation?
Suppose I set up a shop to concentrate on tea. I sell my tea at £1 a cup. While in America I meet someone who says that
he can show me a way to sell tea at £5 a cup and still attract the same number
of customers, but he wants a royalty of £2 a cup for explaining his idea. That sounds a good business deal to me. I would be amazed if anyone were to say that
the royalty should not be deductible in calculating my profits. The idea is so good that I expand
globally. Each of my shops is paying 50p
a cup for tea because I only sell high quality tea. Someone in Holland comes to me and says that
if I buy in bulk from him, he will only charge me 48p a cup. That looks a good deal to me. It takes a lot of work off of me and makes commercial
sense.
Now
let’s look at the man in America. He
lives in America. He came up with his
idea in America. I exploit it throughout
the world. If he is paying tax on his £2
in America, is he nevertheless avoiding UK tax?
Surely not. The UK government has
agreed with the US government that we won’t tax him simply because I use his
idea in the UK; it is a US idea and should attract US tax. What about the man in Holland? He is presumably going to India and
negotiating better prices than I did and is making a profit in doing so. He never sets foot in England. So surely he is not avoiding UK tax either.
Suppose
now the US government has said to the man in America (as it has done), “If you
keep your profits in a non-US subsidiary, we won’t tax them until you bring
them into the UK, because by encouraging US businesses to spread globally we
can spread American ideas internationally.
So the man puts his idea into a Bermudan company. Is he now avoiding US tax? I don’t think so. If I buy shares in Marks & Spencer, I
have to pay UK tax on the dividends and on the gain on sale. The UK government wishes to encourage people
to save, so if I instead buy exactly the same shares through an ISA, I won’t
have to pay any tax. If I use an ISA, am
I avoiding tax? No, say both HMRC and
the UK government. “We have created a
tax-free environment for you provided that you invest through the wrapper of an
ISA. It is sensible to take the benefit
we are offering you because we want you to save and not become a burden on the
State”. But if I am not avoiding tax by
saving through a tax-free wrapper, surely the man in America is not doing so
either by trading through a wrapper that is specifically designated to enable
US tax to be deferred.
Suppose
next that I buy the Bermudan and Dutch companies. They continue exactly as before. I pay them exactly the same fees as
before. Am I somehow avoiding UK tax
even though the previous owners were not doing so? That would seem to me to defy common
sense. But suppose that having bought
the companies I increase the amounts they charge me. That might be trying to avoid UK tax. But the UK laws say that what I pay myself is
irrelevant. I can only deduct the proper
commercial rate – which is likely to be what the company was paying the
previous owner. Indeed, the law goes
further. It says that if I am paying out
money partly to acquire coffee and partly to avoid tax, I cannot deduct even
the commercial amount.
Sadly
I don’t think I would make any money from a chain of tea-shops that allows
people to relax in comfort. Starbucks
have already created that environment with coffee and I doubt I can entice
enough people away to make it worth my while.
But my business model bears an uncanny resemblance to that of Starbucks,
and if I and my friend in America and the guy in Holland were not avoiding UK
tax, how can Starbucks be doing so?
ROBERT MAAS