ARE CHARITABLE DONATIONS EQUIVALENT TO TAX AVOIDANCE?
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ARE CHARITABLE DONATIONS EQUIVALENT TO
TAX AVOIDANCE?
I wrote
an article for Economia recently criticising Action-Aid’s proposals to combat
tax avoidance. In it I suggested that
the tax reliefs for charities could be described as much as tax avoidance as
the government’s relief for financing costs in calculating Diverted Profits Tax,
which Action-Aid had labelled tax avoidance.
A
correspondent took issue with my suggestion that reliefs for charities can be looked
on in the same way as tax avoidance. So
I thought I’d justify myself.
HMRC
statistics show that last year gift-aid repayments to charities cost the
taxpayer £1,040million. Adding in the
tax foregone via charitable donations by companies, IHT relief for gifts to
charities and VAT charity reliefs probably brings the total tax foregone to
£2-3billion.
Last
year HMRC estimated that the country lost £3.1bn in tax avoidance. In other words the total tax foregone in
charitable reliefs is roughly the same as the total tax legally avoided by all
taxpayers put together.
The
government constantly tells us that those who avoid tax are cheating on society
because tax avoided means less money is available to build schools and
hospitals or to fund the running of the NHS.
Logically exactly the same must apply to tax “lost” to charities.
If
I give £1,000 to a charity, this is treated as a gross amount of £1,250. The government will donate £250 to the
charity and will reduce my tax bill by a further £250. That is money that in the absence of gift-aid
could have been used by the government to fund education, welfare, the NHS, or
other socially desirable things that it is the business of government to
provide.
I
have not been democratically elected by my fellow citizens, yet the government
allows me and people like me to divert around £3billion a year from education,
welfare and health and decide that it is better spent on erecting statues,
homes for donkeys, supporting other people’s religions and a myriad of other
things that small groups of individuals perceive to be for the public
good. Why should I be in a better
position than George Osborne to decide that the public interest in spending
£250 on, say, refurbishing a war memorial is greater than the public interest
in paying that £250 to a single mother struggling to bring up three kids? Yet by allowing me gift-aid relief, George
Osborne is delegating to me the decision on how to spend the £250.
I
see from the Charity Commission website that 67,972 registered charities have
an annual income of under £10,000 and a further 55,207 have under
£100,000. These are 75% of all
registered charities, so there are 133,000 causes to which funds have been
diverted from health, education or welfare.
I do not know what those causes are, but I doubt that many can achieve
very much with such small sums.
I
would stress that I have nothing against charities. I make a lot of charitable donations and tick
the box to allow some of them to claim gift-aid. (I don’t do that for donations to my church
because it seems to me morally wrong to ask people of other religious persuasions
or of none to allow me to divert part of their taxes to support my church, but
I suspect that my moral view is a minority one).
However
that is beside the point. The
intellectual question is not whether charities are a good thing. I personally think that some are and others
are not. I would not be surprised if
most people have a similar view, although their categorisation would obviously
be different to mine. It is whether it
is fair to the general body of taxpayers for me to be able to earmark the
proceeds of part of the taxes that the law requires me to pay to be used by my
pet causes. I think it far more logical
for the elected government to decide how taxes should be spent.
The
only rational reason for the relief (as a tax relief) is if it encourages
charitable donations. I have seen no
evidence that it does so. Most people
make charitable donations in response to an appeal by the charity. When deciding whether or not to respond to an
appeal, I do not give any thought to tax relief; I either want to help the
cause or I don’t. I would be surprised
if I am unusual in this respect. I also
note that most charity advertising does not focus on tax relief; it focusses on
why the charity wants the money. If the
charity felt tax relief was what motivates a donor, I would expect it to give
that greater prominence.
ROBERT MAAS
2 Comments:
Charitable tax relief of the type you describe is pro-purposive. It is relief in a form and spirit prescribed by Parliament. The tax avoidance identified in the tax gap calculations is explicitly anti-purposive: contrary to what HMRC (at least) understands the draftsman to have intended. You can only compare tax foregone in charitable tax relief and avoidance if you ignore that difference. Which, of course, you do.
But then the relief for financing costs in calculating Diverted Profits Tax is also "relief in a form and spirit prescribed by Parliament".
So if ActionAid are correct that the financing cost relief is avoidance, then Robert is correct that Gift Aid is avoidance.
The only difference seems to be that the one is a relief of which ActionAid approve, and the other is not. This them gets us back to "tax avoidance" being defined as (or at least including) "behavior of which I personally disapprove", which I think most people agree is not a useful definition.
So if we have a spectrum:
1) Intended reliefs everyone approves of
2) Intended reliefs some people like but I don't
3) Intended reliefs no-one likes (or at least no-one worth mentioning)
4) Intended reliefs being used more than I think is acceptable
5) Intended reliefs being used more than HMRC think is acceptable
6) Unintended reliefs
7) Abuse
8) Evasion
Then the question is, yet again, what the term "Tax avoidance" should cover.
HMRC seem to use it to cover points 5 through to 7. ActionAid are using it to cover 2-7. Robert also seems to use it to cover 2-7, but his 2 is different from ActionAid's (he doesn't like Gift Aid for churches, for example, although I suspect ActionAid might).
If 2 is inherently subjective, then to use the 2-7 definition of "avoidance" you are accepting that avoidance is in the eye of the beholder. 3 and 4, and to a lesser extent 5, are also a bit subjective. To get to an objective definition of "avoidance" then you have to either include 1, as Robert is suggesting ActionAid's position requires, or else drop back to 6.
1-7 is a much broader definition than most people like; 6-7 much narrower. But you need to take one or the other, or else accept that the term is vague.
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